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User talk:Mr. Bad Example
gg
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HEY THERE! Hey, Mr. Bad Example! I saw what you did with your contributions to the wiki. I just wanted to say keep up the good work. |
--zaiger (talk) 19:34, 16 May 2011 (UTC)
Our Internet 'its' and 'it's' sissyfight.
Now before this falls apart into some internet sissy fight, let's be reasonable and discuss.
Now, as we can see, the first instance of 'its' has be changed to 'it's'.
"remains of it's predecessor"
'It's' can either mean 'it is' or 'it has'.
"remains of it is predecessor"
"remains of it has predecessor"
When used in this particular sentence, doesn't make any fucking sense. Whereas 'its' is possessive, suggesting that it belongs to a particular thing or person, and can be correctly used in the aforementioned sentence.
"remains of its predecessor"
And I would assume it would be no more different than, say:
"remains of their predecessor"
This is because they are both possessive.
Does this clears things up, or would you like to give your perspective on the matter?
- Douche McCowfucker 
19:24, 11 January 2013 (EST)
- That's exactly why I changed all those occurrences of "it's" to "its". Go back and look at the edit--each of those is being used as a possessive, and should be "its". Mr. Bad Example 19:31, 11 January 2013 (EST)